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The word 'law' in 1 John 3:4 does not specifically mean the Mosaic law but any law or command God has revealed; Gentiles had moral law before Moses

Mike Winger LIVE Q&A on Theology, Apologetics and the Christian Life 00:42:28 – 00:42:58

Response to question about whether Christians must keep the Mosaic Sabbath since sin is the transgression of the law

Winger argues against equating every biblical use of 'law' with the law of Moses. In 1 John, sin as transgression of the law means sinning against any divine command. Romans also notes Gentiles have a law to themselves even before Mosaic law existed, confirming that 'law' is a broader category than the Torah.
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Can Complementarians Agree To Disagree

I sent a copy of our DVD “Women in Ministry Silenced or Set Free. ” to the Council on Biblical Manhood and Womanhood in February of 2006 and this summer I finally received a response
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@tiermakeracco17 @ADRoblesMedia @smashbaals Yes, that unfortunately does happen too. So where’s the correct path? It’s neither Replacement Theology / Supercessionism nor the Hebrew Roots Movement. When I visited the wailing wall it was to watch wh...

@tiermakeracco17 @ADRoblesMedia @smashbaals Yes, that unfortunately does happen too. So where’s the correct path? It’s neither Replacement Theology / Supercessionism nor the Hebrew Roots Movement.

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Mike Winger LIVE Q&A on Theology, Apologetics and the Christian Life @ 00:42:28

2019-05-08

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Hebrew Roots movement Romans 2 sin law Mosaic Law 1 John 3:4
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