All Things vs. All This Through Christ?: The NIV changed Philippians 4: 13 from I can do "all things" to "all this" which makes more sense to me in context. Do you think "all things" has been misused historically? Will other translations follow?
Q&A question: All Things vs. All This Through Christ?
The NIV changed Philippians 4: 13 from I can do "all things" to "all this" which makes more sense to me in context. Do you think "all things" has been misused historically? Will other translations follow?
← Previous
Confession Time: What did Mike get wrong about Genesis 2, re
Next →Unforgivable Sin in The Didache?: and In the Didache, judgin
Responses
Scripture Commentary
article
What Winger Presently Gets Wrong: Women Leaders in the New Testament (PART A)
Response to Mike Winger's Women in Ministry Part 4 on women leaders in the New Testament (Part A)
Scripture Commentary
article
From Bobbed Hair Bossy Wives And Women Preachers To Woman Be Free
I am very pleased that Stan Gundry has given me permission to post his story about how he changed his view from a staunch complementarian to an egalitarian. I would also request that if you have a story about your own journey from prejudice to freedom in Christ regarding women in ministry that you e
Theology
verse entry
1 Timothy 3:8-13
Sections: exegesis
Your Tags
Personal labels you apply to any item — separate from system topics. Tags are shared across all databases. Visit /tags to browse all your tags.
...more
Personal labels you apply to any item — separate from system topics. Tags are shared across all databases. Visit /tags to browse all your tags.
...more