Don Johnson
2007-08-17
My understanding on naming is that the verse should use the actual word “name” or in Hebrew shem. “Woman” is not a name, it is a recognition that a person is in a particular class, an example of “women”. When a female baby is born and the Doctor says “Its a girl!” does anyone really think the Doctor is NAMING the baby?
This is seen even clearer in the Hebrew, the male is ish and the female is ishah. The “ah” suffix indicates the female, like in Sarah. So the male is saying the female is like him, only female, with his declaration. This continues with bone of my bone and flesh of my flesh, which indicates being in the same family.
It is true that shem/name is used in Gen 3 with Eve, but where was this authorized by God? In fact there are at least 2 points to make about this. Naming is an act of authority and this is an indication that “he will rule over you” is coming to pass. Also, as in Adam the male we all die, he could be called the “father of the dieing”. This gives us a BIG hint that we need to look further in Gen 4-5 about what Eve is like and what Adam is like. Why does Gen 3:15 mention the seed of the woman? Why not seed of the man since they would be the same offspring physically? I believe it is becuase more is being hinted at, that one should look for satan’s crusher to be the offspring of Eve spiritually.
P.S. The CBE conferecne was great.
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