pinklight

Mark,

an over literal position is one like yours which tries to fit everything into a systematic chronology.

A metaphorical approach is to say this didn’t actually happen.

A literal approach (my view) is to say it is historical fact, but not try and squeeze everything to fit systematically.

Scriptural proof for Eve’s leaving is the semantic range of ‘ha’adam’.
It can mean more than one person. Therefore Gen 3:22ff includes Eve, but the text is addressed to the man as the head.

Did God or not speak to the man and the woman, blessing them, telling them to multiply, eat and rule? Are those words in Gen 1, the very words of God spoken to the man and the woman, (which had to of been spoken after woman was created that is, “after chp 2”) or not? If God said those specific words to the man and the woman, when did he say them? It seems to me that you don’t believe that the words of God recorded in Gen 1 to the man and woman were actual words that he spoke. Is this true?

To claim the semantic range of a word is not scriptural proof. All that is, is claiming the semantic range of a word. What specificaly is in the text of Gen 3:22 that shows that the word is being used for the race? What grammar shows this? What part of the context shows this claim of yours? Is the grammar plural? Is there anything in the context itself that indicates Eve is in view?

Also what in the text indicates that the man is being addressed as the head? Is there a mention of rule? Is there a word on authority or responsibility? Is there anything said about the man being the head in this text? Where can I actualy read anything about the man as “head” in these verses?