gengwall
2010-03-12
“This is exactly right! In the issue of marriage I don’t think that we can use Eve as an example of all women since Eve is not one of Adam’s daughters. It is when we treat her as if she is one of us (a woman with Adam’s sin nature) that we can misunderstand what was written about her.”
Oh my!!! This is stark double speak and I must protest. Everyone talks about how Eve’s “desire” represents something that all wives will gravitate towards just as Adam’s “rule” is applied to husbands. Eve has always been discussed as representative of wives. But now, suddenly, when the issue is raised that maybe this “desire” is negative, wives are no longer in view? Now only Adam is representative of male spouses but Eve is not representative of female spouses? I guess that means then, since both husbands and wives are children of Adam, that they will ALL tend to “rule” and the “desire” from Gen 3:16 ONLY applies to Eve herself and nobody else! I’m sorry but you can’t have it both ways. Is Gen 3:16b about marriage and both husbands and wives, or only about Adam and Eve?
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