pinklight

So no, I do not believe that Eve “transferred” anything sin wise to the sons or daughters of Adam. Sin comes through Adam. But femaleness does not come through Adam. That comes through Eve. If there is a sin inclination that is uniquely male, and Gen 3:16 testifies to that, why would we not think that there is some corresponding sin inclination that is uniquely female also testified to in that passage?

I find that not only groundless in scripture but devoid of reason. God is simply not that biased.

gengwall,

Why do we see Adam’s rule over his wife as a sin?

Adam wasn’t given the fruit to eat of the tree, but he took and ate anyway. He also wasn’t given rule over his wife, but God predicts that he will (take) rule over her anyway. God also predicted that he would take from the tree of life so he sets up a watchman to protect the tree. It is apparent that Adam had a problem with taking what he wanted but taking that which he wasn’t given or allowed to have by God.

But why do we see Eve’s desire/turning for her husband as a sin?

Put aside inherited sin nature for a moment!! The passage is directly speaking about Adam and Eve, not their sons and daughters. Please tell me then why you would think that Eve’s desire was sin? Her first sin was due to deception, not taking out of rebellion like Adam what wasn’t given to her. She is no longer deceived. So why is her desire for her husband considered sin by you? I cannot see how it can be sin. How can you see that it is sin?