truthseeker
2010-03-23
347 It is true that it says her desire shall be for Adam. Period. However, it does not say whether this is a pure desire or an impure desire. Both are possible. I can say my desire is for my husband. Period. But that doesn’t state why I have a desire for him. It is the ‘why’ that is critical here, and it is unstated. There is always a ‘why’ or a motive for desiring someone. The fact that it is unstated does not mean we can immediately conclude the reason is either pure or impure. We have to look at the whole context.
As for it sounding like modern reasons are being imported, I can’t speak for others, but if I even try to imagine what Eve’s reasons for desiring Adam might have been, my guesses could include things like security, companionship, practical help (with the children or with just living and getting sustainance and shelter, clubbing wild beasts, etc.), physical pleasure, and so forth. Again, a person can have good or bad motives for wanting these things. They might be looking more to their husband for these things than they are looking to God. Who knows? Motive is key. We have to try to discern hers by the greater context. We can’t just conclude that her motives are pure because we think they are or because we think ours would be in similar circumstances.
I find it very intriguing that God said her desire would be for her husband, of all things. He said nothing about her desire for God, Himself, or for any number of other things. I wonder why or why not? I am not saying I have the exact answer to that; I am saying I don’t think it is a given that her desire is necessarily good.
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