Susanna Krizo

Marke, I never said authority=evil, I said authority was instituted BECAUSE OF EVIL, i.e the presence of sin.
As I suspected, the only foundation you can give is “God says,” but you did not answer my question: WHERE DOES GOD DECLARE IT AND WHY DID DECLARE IT. This is the question comps cannot answer wherefore they must resort to the Divine Commandment Theory, i.e. it is right because God commands it, but the question whether God has actually commanded it, cannot be proven by such a theory.

Comps have done a superb job at convincing the church that egalitarianism is caused by post-modern philosophy. Of course they have zero proof of it and can only demonize women’s rights movements, as the White Supremist demonized the civil rights movement. Whereas both of these movements had some issues, they were hardly influencing the church to remove itself from the original plan; even comps admit that there was plenty wrong how the church used to teach wifely submission etc. That said, it was actually ancient philosophy which changed our view from egal to comp by making the woman inferior. Where do we get the idea that a wife should be under the husband’s authority? From the Vulgate, in which Jerome translated Gen 3.16: “under the man’s authority will you be and he shall rule over you.” This was perceived to be a commandment until 1980’s. Luther, who BTW used the Hebrew Bible, as did Jerome, translated Gen 3.16, “your will shall be under the man’s authority and he shall rule over you,” and this is where we get the idea that a husband should place his wife’s will under his authority. Very few know about these changes since our modern Bibles use the word “desire,” which is also a false translation.

Gen 1 describes the rule of a rational over an irrational, Gen 3 describes the sinful rule of a rational over an other rational being, but Gen 2 describes love, which is why it is used in Eph 5 to fortify the teaching that a man should love his wife as he loves himself.

You asked why authority or rule was necessary in the sinless world. As i pointed out, and as God himself declared it was there before the fall. Therefore you ought to be more regulated in your arguments, rather than declaring that ‘rule’ is a consequence of sin. If God ordained that authorty exist in a sinless world we ought to teach and know that- that’s my point. Once that is set as the foundation, then one can look further to see if such authority existed between husband/wife and if it did, we can be confident that authority is not in and of itself sinful. This is at the heart of many egalitarian arguments, and unfortunately they by pass this point assuming authority=evil (which of course is a by-product of our post modern philosophy)