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gengwall

gengwall

2010-05-27

” And if we recognize that this sort of love (eros) is between two inequivalent people”

This is where I think the proof breaks down. What compels me to acknowledge this inequivalency? Nothing that I can see. It is presumptive. I don’t have any proof that the two people in a marriage are inequivalent so I have no reason to recognize anything about eros based on said inequivalency.

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Original Article

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