Susanna Krizo

hi Mark, good to hear from you! How are things “down under”? I so loved Australia when I visited my relatives in 2000 that I almost emigrated, but I think I already told you this before.

To your question:
Oh, you bet I am consistent! The trinity is found in Gen 1, at the baptism of Jesus all three appear. All three area called God explicitly (Spirit: Acts 5, Son: Rom 13, Titus 2 (I think) etc.), they are all said to give life, all were present at creation, etc. I could provide many more if you wish, but as a Christian, this really should not be a stumblingblock for you.
The Bible however does NEVER say God gave the man authority. It is never said explicitly or implicitly, that is something that has been superimposed on the Bible. There is not even one verse you can refer to that says as much, not even one. You know this as well as I do, which is why you have not provided one.
Gen 1-3 never says we are identical, but it says we are equal. The woman was created from the man, i.e what the man is, she is – a human being. Equality does not mean identical, that is a belief created as a response to patriarchy which insisted that our differences made us unequal, i.e. as Aristotle put it: the woman as an impotent male, wherefore she had to be ruled by the man. All humans are equal in worth just because they are humans and created in the image of God.
The Bible does not use the words “free will” but it does not have to for the concept is readily available for all to read. I.e. why did God give the law if humans did not have the ability to choose between good and evil? (Erasmus argued against Luther about the subject and their discussion is found in book form if anyone is interested). Why does Gen 4.7 tell Cain to rule over sin if he had no ability to do so. Why did God EXPLICITLY tell Adam not to take from the tree if he had no choice on the matter? That said, where does God say, “Adam, rule over Eve?” The early church was very consistent in that they found the rule in Gen 3.16 since it is the only place where Gen 1-3 speaks of any kind of rule.

You wrote: “According to your theological perspective, we would not know half of what we know because it is not ‘explicit’ enough for you.”
You are right, we would not know even half of the errors the church has showed down our throats due to inferences and other faulty ways of interpreting the Bible. However, I am not the measuring stick. Show me where the Bible says God gave the man authority and I will cheerfully believe you.

And for your info: I always ask for explicit verses when it comes to foundational doctrines – as do you! One of you, I think it was NN, but it could also have been you, told me that since the Bible does not explicitly say the husband should submit to his wife, mutual submission does not exist. Why is it that you demand explicit verses from us when you cannot provide such yourself?