Mark

Suzannah,

You have proved exactly the point. References to Jesus or the Spirit’s divinity are not an ‘explicit’ mention of a Trinity. We must group all relevant information together to form our theology of the Trinity. So why is it, you refuse to do that on the gender debate, but rather require an ‘explicit’ reference.

You say that the Bible never claims to give the man authority, but again this is because your argument is based on a needed ‘explicit’ statement. The fact that Adam names Eve, Eve was made from and for him, made as his help-meet obviously do not constitute enough ‘references’ for you. To me this is inconsistent! The same way you would dismiss the implicit references, would be the same way a JW would reject the implicit references on the Trinity. You still come back to the same problem- a need for an explicit reference, rather than a solid Biblical Theology.

Same goes with free will. You say it must exist since we are told to do X,Y and Z, but that is working backwards again, and does not insist on an explicit reference. I agree that free-will exist since we are told to do X, Y, and Z, but I also believe in comp theology for similar reasons. I see X, Y, and Z relating back to show male headship and authority. This is my point. How you systematise your theology in one area is inconsistent in others. So although we are never told ‘Husband has authority over Wife’, we are told that wives are to submit, and that the husband is the head.

Finally you said “Why is it that you demand explicit verses from us when you cannot provide such yourself?”

This is exactly my point. I don’t demand explicit references but I asked to show the folly of the argument. What works for A has to work for B. If there were enough implicit references even to reject male headship, I would accept it, but I do not think the Bible supports it. Never is the woman designated the ‘head’, never once is the husband told to submit to her. The only thing close to reciprocal submission is Eph 5:21, but for me a theology has to be based on more than one interpretation of one verse and I can’t see how the Bible supports what egals wish Eph 5:21 to mean.

All I’m asking is that you be fair in your argument, and not demand illogical ‘proof’ that you would otherwise not need.

Cheers