Mark

Susannah,

I don’t have time to answer all your questions but just a comment.

You implied that John 1 was ‘explicit’ enough to show Jesus is God. A few months ago i went to a Christadelphian seminar designed to rebuttle the orthodox view of Trinity. The man was quite convinced that ‘word’ did not have to mean what a orthodox christian would have it mean. He used semantics for the word, lexicon definitions, contextual matters etc etc…

so the point is this… it may be ‘explicit’ for you but for a cult it is not!

So your inconsistency still remains. You demand one thing, but neglect others. What is termed ‘explicit’ enough will depend on one’s own Biblical theology and bias’ on the theology.

So to me the teaching of the Bible is quite clear and explicit to support a comp position but for you, the opposite is true. How does noe reconcile this? Consistency in biblical exegesis, hermeneutics etc which i think is far better on the comp side…not perfect but better.

Your little history lessons are fascinating but irrelevant to our topic. After all, you haven’t mentioned that egalitarianism has NEVER been an orthodox position and it’s incline is intrinsically intertwined with the sexual revolution, women’s liberation and post-modern philosophy. Please at least be consistent in your history if nothing else.

As regards your other statements…freewill…not really relevant to this post. I only mentioned them to demostrate the explicit/implicit argument or lack of…that is all.