Craig

I just noticed that in 1 Tim 2:14b the Greek word translated “was deceived” in the NIV (exapatetheisa) is called an “aorist active participle” here http://interlinearbible.org/1_timothy/2.htm

Does this mean that the woman was not actually the one who was deceived (passive), but rather the one who deceived one or more other people (active)? Should it be translated as “having deceived” rather than “was deceived” or “being deceived”. Is any of this significant?