pinklight

Would you please explain to me why this text says, “A woman must quietly receive instruction with entire submissiveness. But I do not allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a man, but to remain quiet.”

Let’s start here:
The text prohibits “a woman” or a specific woman because Paul was addressing a specific situation that invloved one woman – “a woman” who he does not name. (There’s a reason why he does not name her) There’s no way (I gaurantee it) to draw out of the passage more than one woman or there is no way to prove that Paul was prohibiting more than one woman! Contextualy the only proof that exists from within the passage itself is that Paul was stopping ONE woman from teaching. There is not one person on the entire planet (!) that could PROVE that Paul was placing a prohibition on more than ONE woman. Is it possible though that he could have been prohibiting mre than one woman? Sure it is possible but ONLY OUTSIDE of what the passage itself provides! In other words, if the scripture and what it says is where the line is drawn then Paul only stopped one woman from teaching. Ofcourse we can draw lines all day outside of scripture, but what would be the point in that if Scripture is our bases of faith?

The immediate context – the verses prior to Paul’s prohibition speak of Godly women, opposed to the one woman who is decieved and should not teach. Paul didn’t stop the Godly women from teaching but only the one specific woman.