Cheryl Schatz

gilliansnotebook, I think you have a good question as well. I believe Jesus when He said that He spoke the words that His Father gave to Him. The Father said what He means. Since He knows all things, He would have know that using the term “all” would mean people would believe Jesus would draw all human beings to Him. Because the Father does not deceive people, He would have used the term “some” or equivalent if He meant “some” of the Jews and “some” of the Gentiles. It may be a hard passage to understand, but I do not understand why the words of Jesus are not seen as meaning “all”. There is no limiting factor in the passage to remove the importance of the term “all”.