Don Johnson
2007-10-03
I found a thread where Matt asked for a SHORT summary of your position. I posted my understanding, which includes ideas from yours, as I did not see your post there.
I posted the following on the CARM board.
The basic reason 1 Tim 2:12 refers to a specific woman is that 1 Tim 2:15 refers to a specific woman and the “she” in “she-will-be-saved” (Greek sothesetai) in 1 Tim 2:15 refers back to 1 Tim 2:12 as it cannot refer to the woman in the garden.
The verb in 1 Tim 2:15 is future (She will be saved…), while the verb in 1 Tim 2:12 is present active, as in “I am not now permitting…”.
The repeated hesuchia (in verses 11 and 12) forms a inclusio and serves to bind 1 Tim 2:11 tightly with 1 Tim 2:12 as one thought. As 1 Tim 2:11’s verb is an imperative, this is the key concept that has priority in understand the 11-12 “bundle” and would have been very counter-cultural in the 1st century.
The basic reason for the letter is to stop false teaching at Ephesus. In order to do that, Paul uses 2 methods, disfellowship for the 2 main deliberate offenders, Hy and Al, who will be taught by satan. The second method he uses is current silencing (but not disfellowshipping) the deceived offender (a woman, not named as naming her would be impacting her potential future ministry), commanding that she be taught correct doctrine by the tearchers in the congregation and then (hopefully) having her restored, depending on her choices once she knows the truth.
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