Billy

The phrase “anyone” is not refering to women, and it is clear that throughout the book of Acts the men are counted in the numbering of the church at Jerusalem. I Cor. 14:34 is the very passage that says a women is not permitted to speak. I know the arguement of it is in the context of tongues, but he uses the same language in I Tim 2. It is not cultural or for a specific time or place because in I Cor. 14 he takes it back to the law and in I Timothy 2 he takes it back to Adam and Eve. With this being the case it must be a role issue.