teknomom

156Billy
The phrase “anyone” is not refering to women, and it is clear that throughout the book of Acts the men are counted in the numbering of the church at Jerusalem. I Cor. 14:34 is the very passage that says a women is not permitted to speak. I know the arguement of it is in the context of tongues, but he uses the same language in I Tim 2. It is not cultural or for a specific time or place because in I Cor. 14 he takes it back to the law and in I Timothy 2 he takes it back to Adam and Eve. With this being the case it must be a role issue.

Please back up your assertion that “anyone” is not refering to women”. Where does the Bible indicate that women cannot be in view? Are you referring to a specific verse, and if so, which one? We need to examine the context.

The “law” you refer to in 1 Cor. 14 is not from the Bible; it cannot be found anywhere in the old testament. It is a rabbinical tradition and Paul is strongly refuting it. He has been writing this letter to answer questions put to him by the Corinthians, and there are no quotation marks in Greek. Instead, the quoted text is typically followed by “What??” or “Or” as it is in English translations. This is the same Paul who wrote Galatians, wherein he spent great effort to turn people away from the old laws. There is no precedent for Paul himself turning back to such laws in this or any other case.

If you do some reading here before bringing up these already-refuted claims, it would save us having to repeat ourselves. As we’ve already shown, and Cheryl has so thoroughly shown, Paul’s referral to Adam and Eve is to explain why an inexperienced person taking a position as a teacher and teaching false doctrine is to be silenced, not all women. Eve was inexperienced and did not ever see God create anything, and so thought she could be like God. So Paul refers to the danger of false and ignorant teachers.

Anyway, that’s all more thoroughly explained in documents here, please read them.