pinklight

I agreed that diakonos can mean ‘deacon’ in certain contextual circumstances and i likewise agreed that 1 Tim 3:11 could be refering to women deacons. BUT THAT IS NOT THE ONLY POSSIBILITY so to say it is or at least assume and promote it is, is misleading, that’s all.

Well, both interpretations cannot be right. One must be wrong and so the one who holds the wrong interpretation is misleading knowingly or not. What absolute exclusion can be made, again? Someone please infrom.