Mark

Hi all,

Re 73,
It’s easy on two accounts. I can legitimately claim that verse 11 refers to wives and Pheobe simply a servant. That is issue number one and is a fair and legitimate interpretation.

Number 2: Even if one allows verse 11 to be referring to ‘women deacons’ it can not be denied that verse 12 is also referring to the opposite (back to men). In fact, most commentators with any sense realise this. Either way, within the discussion of deacons, only one verse talks of women, be that wives or female deacons.

Therefore, no, ‘husband of one wife’ is not ‘gender inclusive’ which is an outlandish claim Kristen has made un-supported. Within the discussion of deacons verses 8-10, 12-13 refer to males and verse 11 refers to wives or deaconesses.

Unless Kristen can show why it should be understood as gender inclusive this discussion will become irrelevant. Since when does ‘husband’= husband and wife and wife=wife and husband. It’s almost ridiculous trying to even consider that. Where’s the proof Kristen?