Craig

Hi Mark,
Just thinking aloud. A couple of questions come to mind that you may be able to help with Mark.
1. Is there a reason you left out Rev 2:20 and the “teaching” rather than “false teaching” of Jezebel? Sorry if you mentioned this verse and I just missed it.
2. In a situation like Jezebel, where a specific false teacher is known to both the writer and the recipient, is there a need to clarify that her “teaching” is “false teaching”? It seems that the answer is no. I can understand the need to use the word for “false teaching” where the recipient would not otherwise understand, but where the specific false teacher is well known, it may have not been necessary. Any thoughts?