Kay

Mark,
Pardon the typo – not ‘2’ Tim, but 1 Tim.2.
Traditional scholars say a) we can see a universal principle behind vv. 8-9, but v. 12 is a universal principle, and b) Paul supports v. 12 with evidence from Scripture, thereby indicating that it is a universal rule. However, 1 Cor. 11 shows that Paul can use Scripture even when arguing for a cultural custom, and he could have cited a scripture to support vv. 8-9, as well, without making them universal. The principle behind v. 12 may be a general one, just as it is for 5:9 or 6:1.

In 1 Tim. 6:1-2, Paul tells slaves to submit to their masters for the sake of the gospel. Paul’s advice is not a permanent approval of slavery, and in the same way, his policy for women may be a temporary need, not a permanent approval of authority restricted to males. Paul did not directly command slavery, but his policy was that slaves should submit to their masters. By doing this, Paul taught something less than God’s ideal in order to advance the gospel—which means that he might have done something similar for women.
After all, when Paul commands Christian slaves to serve their masters well, there is nothing in the text to indicate that Paul expects this situation to be a temporary one. Is there?