truthseeker

“You said: ” …then likewise, Adam’s actions would provide us an opportunity for sin but we would still have to appropriate or participate in it. ”
That is exactly right. Adam’s actions brought us a sin nature, but a sin nature doesn’t force us to sin.”

Cheryl, I didn’t say Adam’s actions brought us a sin nature. I said they brought us an opportunity to sin. You said they brought us a sin nature. Very very different-sin nature vs. opportunity to sin. Perhaps better yet, Adam simply brought us an example of sinning to follow should we choose to do so along with all the consequences of his sin that affect us. I do not see any mention of sin nature in the passage.

” We can’t say “the devil made me do it” or “Adam made me do it”. What our sin nature does is crave sin but it doesn’t make us sin. ….. But our “natural man” craves sin. We all give in but we don’t have to.”

You are again inserting ‘sin nature’ where the bible never does. It is like when the comps insert terms and concepts such as ‘roles’, ‘masculinity’, and ‘femininity’, into the bible and biblical discussions when those terms are never mentioned in the bible. It may SEEM ‘logical’ to do so, but if the basis isn’t truly there, nor the language, then we tread on unfounded ground at the least. You also seem to interchange ‘sin nature’ with ‘our natural man’. I think they are different. We do have our human nature. That seems to be all we need to sin. It was enough for Adam, who was not described as having a sin nature prior to sinning that enabled him to sin.

“So what I am saying is that Adam’s sin brought us to sin with the natural inheritance of his rebellious nature, but it cannot make us sin. Christ’s obedience brought us to righteousness by his actions but He does not force us to have faith in Him.”

Where in the bible does it say we ‘naturally inherited his rebellious nature? After all, if an inherited nature is required to sin, then where did Adam get his, since he sinned? And if a sinful nature is requisite for sinning, then logically and in a parallel vein of thinking, a righteous nature would be required for choosing righteousness. Yet, no mention is made of us inheriting a righteous nature so we can choose salvation. You rightly say that “Christ’s obedience brought us to righteousness by his actions…,” it says nothing of our coming to righteousness by having some kind of inherited righteous nature. Yet, the very same logic is being used to say that we choose sin because we have a sinful nature.

Adam seemed well able to choose to sin without having any mention of a sinful nature. I think then, that we are totally capable of sinning, in like manner, without having a ‘sin nature’.

Does this make sense?