pinklight

Obviously because comps claim that the usage of ‘woman’ in v.14, is used to refer to a singular particular woman being Eve therefore it can be said that it’s usage elsewhere in the SAME passage was also for a singular particular woman (an unnamed woman at Ephesus who was teaching false things to her husband). But the comps will pick and choose it’s usage. Does it even make sense that the grammatical singular could have a two sided usage in the passage? How absurd.

I’ve been thinking on thispassage lately, obviously, so am giving my two cent thoughts.   🙂