Truthseeker

Referring back to my comments in no.3, where I may have sounded muddled, what I mean is, if Christ only had God as His ‘head’ (meaning leader) while on earth (as opposed to having God the Father as Christ’s head for all time), wouldn’t the verse have to read something like ‘and the head of Christ was God” ?  So, since it says ‘…the head of Christ is God’, it would make since if the headship means source-which would be true always and would work with ‘is’-rather than ‘head’ which would have only worked while Christ was on earth in human form?  I ask this because the comps who believe that Christ was subordinate to God the Father while Christ was on earth use this part of the verse to justify that the word means head rather than source.  I say it cannot if my above thinking is correct.

I know that there is a link on this site for recommended resources.  Just wanted to fine-tune if there is a reason to choose one over another in each category.  Thanks for bearing with me on all this.