Anonymous

Hey there,

I’ve recently been studying the topic of women in ministry. Though I’m still not sure which position I take, I’ve found your blog to be an invaluable resource, and most of your articles seem logical, thought-provoking, and well-grounded in Scripture. However, I do have one question about the past couple of posts.

If I understand you correctly, you argue that Eve couldn’t have added to God’s words in Gen. 3:3 because a) God didn’t confront her with this charge, and b) before eating the forbidden fruit she was a sinless woman. Yet in the previous post, you say or at least imply that Adam sinned against God by not protecting the garden and by staying silent while his wife was being deceived (the sin of omission, James 4:17).

When God confronts Adam about eating the fruit, He doesn’t mention the failure to guard and speak up, just like He doesn’t mention Eve’s alleged addition to the command. (There is the verse in Hosea about “dealing treacherously,” but that was written long after Adam’s death; I would think God would tell Adam to his face what all his sins were.) In addition, Adam was just as perfect (relatively speaking) in his pre-fallen state as Eve was. It seems to me the same logic that would acquit Eve would also acquit Adam.

Also, and this is more of a general question about theology, but does Deut. 19:15 apply to God’s finding someone guilty of sin? I’ve always thought that verse was talking more about humans finding someone guilty of a crime, as in a civic setting, and that omniscient God doesn’t need another witness since He alone sees our hearts and judges what we do in secret (Romans 2:16).

Thoughts? And thanks so much for your time!