Pinklight
2008-08-07
I’ve heard it claimed by comps, Bruce Ware for example that the woman was taught the command by the man. That is what Bruce Ware claims. While this unwarranted claim is made, it is also claimed by comps that she ‘got it wrong’, not the man in his teaching her, but she did, in her response to the serpent. So in conclusion not only does God not speak to the woman about his prohibition, but she also could not get it right even when taught (by man).
But if the man did not teach the woman in the garden, then why is it claimed that women can not teach men but only men can teach womenwhile what is not found in Genesis is that the man taught the woman in the first place? If it’s not a foundational teaching of Genesis, (and it’s not) that man is to teach woman then where does the teaching that only men should teach doctrine come from? Does it come from Adam’s silence? This is more reason why her testimony is important in contrast to the man’s silence.
If the woman can testify to what God HAS said in Genesis then she is not the woman that tradition has made her out to be.
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