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Paula

Paula

2009-03-19

Consider the Greek of 1 Tim. 2:13-14–

For first Adam was formed and Eve after, and Adam was not seduced. Yet woman being seduced in transgression HAS BECOME.

It’s all about deception or seduction; there is nothing about authority. And as you should know, the Greek word authentein is hotly debated because of its rarity, and there are much clearer words for authority that Paul did not use here.

Note also that the tense of “has become” shows continuing action in the present, meaning the woman Paul refers to is not Eve but a woman living at the time, since whoever she is she is STILL in a state of error as of his writing.

Also note that when authorities disagree, it is fallacious to appeal to them. You only quoted those that agree with your interpretation regarding whether “a woman” can be understood generically in this passage. And when such a switch is made in the middle of a sentence, such a view stretches credulity, no matter who it is that’s doing the stretching.

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Original Article

What Does 1 Timothy 211 15 Mean

2006-12-02