gengwall

“Words have set meanings and always will. Do you use a dictionary?”

I certainly do use a dictionary, as you suggest Douglass, but it is important to use the right dictionary. A dictionary of English words often proves fruitless when dealing with Greek text. I suggest that you look to the Greek when analyzing 1 Tim 2:11-15. Some interesting things you may discover:

The word often translated “silence” in verses 11 and 12 actually means to be at peace. It has nothing to do with audible sound or keeping one’s mouth shut. To infer that Paul is telling Timothy that women should not speak completely misunderstands the word.

The word often translated “usurp authority” or “exercise authority” in verse 12 actually means to completely dominate someone. In fact, the first definition often given is “one who with his own hands kills another or himself”. To believe that such an act is not allowable for women is understandible. But is such a thing allowable for men either? Certainly not. No one in the body should domineer another person – to do so is clearly sin. So the passage is not talking about some God ordained authority that men have over women and that women are somehow usurping from men. To assume that this verse signals male authority over women comepltely misunderstands the word being used.

The word used to speak of “the woman” in verse 14 is in the Perfect tense, indicating an ongoing action. The correct literal translation is “the woman, having been deceived, HAS FALLEN into transgression”. In other words, Paul is not speaking of Eve at this point, but of some contemporary woman in Timothy’s congregation that has fallen prey to deception as Eve did.

The word that some translations give as “women” in verse 15 is actually singular and continues to refer to the indivudal woman from verse 14. Paul is not talking about all women, Christian women, women in Timothy’s congregation, or any other generic feminine grouping. He is talking about an individual woman. Any attempt to apply this passage to women in general completely misses Paul’s intent.

The word often translated as a verb so as to yield “the bearing of children” or some other similar form is actually a noun. Not only that, but it is accompanied by the definite article indicating that a specific birth is in view. The literal translation is “the childbearing”. So, you see, women don’t actually have a second chance at some works based salvation. They are saved the same way you and I and our male brothers are saved – through the birth of Jesus. Paul discusses this first in chapter one, and this is just an extension of that promise. You are right that you can’t bear children. The same is sadly true for many, many women. Luckily, this passage has nothing to do with obstetrics.

I don’t know what translation you use, Douglas, but I have reviewed over 80 English translations of this passage and find them seriously lacking. Moreover, anyone who then takes those translations and attempts to derive the meaning of the passage based on an English dictionary has doubled down on thier erroneous analysis. I give you here a very literal translation of the passage, using Greek as the basis instead of English, from the Concordant Literal New Testament. Please read it carfully. I suspect it sounds very different from what you have read in the past.

“Let a woman be learning in quietness with all subjection. Now I am not permitting a woman to be teaching nor yet to be domineering over a man, but to be in quietness (for Adam was first molded, thereafter Eve, and Adam was not seduced, yet the woman, being deluded, has come to be in the transgression). Yet she shall be saved through the child bearing, if ever they should be remaining in faith and love and holiness with sanity.”

I ask you, in light of this far more literal and accurate translation, what possibly could this passage have to do with women generically teaching men?