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gengwall

gengwall

2011-05-02

“the first clause of Moffat’s translation seems very natural.”

Except for the fact that it does not follow the grammer. Moffet presents “Childbirth” as a verb but the actual text is “the childbirth” – a definite noun. Plus, one can’t simply ignore that this passage is decidedly inside the theological sphere.

Young’s Literal Translation is more true to the grammer and presents quite a contrast from Moffet. “she shall be saved through the child-bearing”.

And then there is the context to consider. What could being brought physically safely through the child bearing process have to do with the rest of this passage? It would be completely out of the blue with no prior or subsequent text to warrant its inclusion.

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Original Article

What Does 1 Timothy 211 15 Mean

2006-12-02