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pinklight

pinklight

2009-01-27

‘God did not make Adam and Eve from the ground at the same time and for one another without distinction.’
This creates a thought on Genesis where it is written that God created Adam from the ground.

‘Neither did God make the woman first, and then the man from the woman for the woman.’
Then this connects the first thought above (Adam created from the ground in Genesis) to 1 Tim 2 ‘Adam was created first’ and also to 1 Co 11 ‘8For man did not come from woman, but woman from man; 9neither was man created for woman, but woman for man.’

‘He could have created them in either of these ways so easily, but He didn’t. Why? Because, presumably, that would have obscured the very nature of manhood and womanhood that He intended to make clear.’
So, I wonder where does he see the nature of manhood and womanhood? 1 Tim 2 and 1 Co 11? How he interprets the order of creation then is attatched to how he interprets 1 Tim 2 and 1 Co 11 for there are no other verses that mention the creation order of Adam and the source of woman’s creation in the NT, except for those 2 and in them he sees apparently the nature of manhood and womanhood.

And who said women aren’t followers? lol!

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