Charis
2009-02-05
Are you possibly alluding to the thought that Adam only became male after the “part” was taken out? Did God add testosterone after the “part” was taken out? If not, then how could we understand that Adam was just as male as he was before the “part” was taken out?
I realize y’all have moved on to another post on this topic, but I wanted to suggest the possibility that testosterone was added after the Fall. Not that Adam had none before the Fall, but more was added- which has the side effect of increased aggression. And that the woman- in a “corresponding” or “complementary” way- had her hormones adjusted to increase her fertility and her desire (which was needed, now that death had been introduced).
Unto the woman HE [God]said,
I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception;
in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children;
and thy desire [shall be] to thy husband,
and he shall rule over thee. Gen 3:16
Do you see the multiplied conception, fertility, desire for her husband? and the increased aggression?
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