Truthseeker

Cheryl, I am very grateful for your work! In trying to address potential questions from my comp. friends (I am egal.), I have a question about 1 Timothy: When it says ‘I do not permit a woman to teach a man’, in our English vocab and grammar, this could easily be taken as meaning ‘any woman to teach any man’ as in a teacher saying, “I do not permit a student to leave the room without a pass”. That is easily generally synonymous with “I do not permit any student to leave the room without a pass.” I agree that it is readily evident that woman is singular, and in your dvd teaching, you confirm that is the case in the original language as well. What I wonder is what the original grammar says about the article ‘a’ in front of woman and man. Does it necessarily exclude the possibility of the meaning ‘any’ woman/man? Does the singular form of the word ‘woman’ or any other aspect of the grammar prevent the possibility of the phrase ‘a woman’ being used as a referant to more than one woman, as it could in our language?
Also, per the phrase a bit further in 1 Tim. 2:15, when it says ‘women shall be saved by the childbirth’, does the word saved definitely refer to eternal salvation as opposed to some other kind of salvation? When I looked it up in Strong’s, it had several possible flavors of the meaning ‘salvation’. I realize context has much bearing on this passage, but still wondered about my question.
Finally, with versions of the bible having varying ways of saying things, which is the best version to use when searching for accuracy of meaning? Or, which several versions? This is daunting because it seems to mean we all need to study Greek and Hebrew, at least, and rather in depth, to clear up biblical misconceptions, or to even know where they are. Do you recommend any commentaries or other helps for the person beginning to study out this subject or others from the bible?
Thank you very much for all you do!!!!!