Paula

We all agree that “has become” denotes a past event with continuing results; that is not the issue. The issue is whether scripture says it was the sin of Eve that had continuing results, or whether it was only the sin of Adam. Much scripture supports the latter; none support the former.

It all hinges on who “the woman” is. It is she who “has fallen into sin” and still remains there. It does NOT say that one woman fell into sin and that other women still suffer the results. Repeatedly asserting otherwise is not an argument or proof. Only Adam’s sin is said by scripture to have had continuing results on others.

The challenge: to prove that “the woman” MUST be Eve, and that scripture says her sin has ONLY AFFECTED WOMEN that came after her.

But I expect that instead of facing this challenge, it will be sidestepped. The assertion will be repeated endlessly, as long as we all play along. ::sigh::