pinklight

Hi Cheryl and Mike,

I have some thoughts and questions in this comment…

Mike:
“I do think that this passage shows is an ecclesiastical authority that is by men and that the men are to publicly correct an errant prophetic word primarily because the women are not the elders/pastors.”

What‘s been said above can be re-worded saying:

I do think that this passage shows is an ecclesiastical authority that is by men and that the men are to publicly correct an errant prophetic word primarily because the men are the elders/pastors (an interpretation of 1 Tim 3).

And women then are not to publically correct for the same primary reason – the women are not the elders/pastors the men are (an interpretation of 1 Tim 3). 1 Co 14 then is seen through the lens of an interpretation of 1 Tim 3. And since some men are the elders/pastors, any man is to publically correct errant prophetic word. But since no women are the elders/pastors, all women are not to publically correct.

In this view of 1 Co 14, are women to publically correct an errant prophetic word of women? Can women teach other women in church?

Here then, the foundation of the argument rests on ecclesiastical authority (public church setting I safely assume) that is by men which begins with 1 Tim 3. Therefore the passage of 1 Co 14 itself cannot/does not show an ecclesiastical authority that is by men but an interpretation through an interpretation does.

Where does the idea of “public correction of errant prophetic word” show itself within 1 Co 14? Sure errant prophecy happens all the time by those in the church, but does Paul even once talk about error of prophecy and if he does, where is this seen/ read/written within the passage?

34women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says. 35If they want to INQUIRE about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church.

And noting some things Paul said about prophecy within the chp:

“3But everyone who prophesies speaks to men for their strengthening, encouragement and comfort.“

“4…but he who prophesies edifies the church.”

“5…He who prophesies is greater than one who speaks in tongues, unless he interprets, so that the church may be edified.

A conclusion: The one who interprets is greater than the one who does not.

Where is errant prophecy spoken of in anyway, in 1 Co 14? How does one go from “inquire” to “correction of errant prophecy”? How is the switch made from “wives” to women? How does one go from “interpreting prophecy” to “correction of errant prophecy”?