pinklight

I’m reading that the 1 Co 14 interpretation above began with an interpretation of 1 TIM 3 about elders/pastors.

“I do think that this passage shows is an ecclesiastical authority that is by men and that the men are to publically correct an errant prophetic word primarily because the women are not the elders/pastors.”

Then it is stated to be about (the law that is) “correction of errant prophecy” which is not even in the passage.

“The 1 Corinthians 14 passage has to do with the corporate worship setting and specifically the judgment of prophetic words.”

Then the support for the argument is just another interpretation as seen through the lens of an interpretation of Eph 5 of “male headship.”

“Paul is likely forbidding women to speak up and judge prophecies (this is in line in the immediate context; cf. 1 Cor 14:29) since such an activity would subvert male headship.”

Next, “correction of errant prophecy/the law” is tied backwards to woman’s creation in Genesis, in a garden which is not even a public church setting even though the public church setting is where the interpretation began:

“I do think that this passage shows is an ecclesiastical authority that is by men and that the men are to publically correct an errant prophetic word primarily because the women are not the elders/pastors.”

“‘Law also says’. Paul is probably thinking of the woman’s creation “from” or “for” the man. (see 11:8-9; Gen. 2:20-24).”

So round and round it goes…

“In 1 Timothy 2:12, Paul says, “I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet.” I link this passage to 1 Timothy 3:2…when Paul says that one of the requirements for an overseer is to be “the husband of one wife/woman.” I think these two passages show that the position of overseer is to be a man and that the man is to be the teacher…I don’t think that means… but I do think that Paul is saying the exercising authority is not what God desires of a woman in a church.”

The paragraph ended with, “but I do think that Paul is saying the exercising of authority is not what God desires of a woman in a church.” So the judging of prophecy/correction of errant prophecy in this view of 1 Co 14 is considered “authoritative.” So really the idea of judging of prophecy in this view not only comes from nowhere within the passage of 1 Co 14 itself, but somehow the non-existent idea (show me where it is?) is considered “authoritative” because it is somehow tied to an interpretation of 1 Tim 2, “In 1 Timothy 2:12, Paul says, “I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet.” I link this passage to 1 Timothy 3:2).” – back at the beginning again.

Do we need to start with 1 Tim 2? Genesis? A concept that doesn’t exist in a passage (judging/correction of prophecy)? 1 Tim 3?

I think we need to start with 1 Co 14 by itself and not bring any of our other interpretations into the passage. I don’t think we can mix contexts of different letters and scriptures and end up making sense of anything.