Holly
2010-07-19
gengwall @ 114
Thank you for your explanation. I agree that there are examples within Scripture of women being used by God in different ways, but unfortunately I’ve always been taught that this was God’s exception to His rules. Funny how we learn to read with blinkers on without knowing it. I was stunned when I went and reread the account of Deborah without reading any preconceived ideas into it and found that she wasn’t raised up as God’s last resort just because the men in that day were “weak”.
With the oral laws and traditions of the Jews being so against women, so much so that Paul had to address the issue of head covering in such a way in 1 Cor 11, I’m wondering why he wouldn’t have had to address the issue of women teaching and learning in a public setting much the same way. In 1 Tim 2 we do see Paul letting a woman learn, but this example is within the bounds of husband/wife relationship, not seemingly in a “public” church setting.
Kay @113
I’ve never looked at Titus 2:3 as a permission for women to teach/preach in a public setting, especially where men were involved. Mainly because of vs’ 4 & 5 which say “That they may teach the young women to be sober, to love their husbands, to love their children, [To be] discreet, chaste, keepers at home, good, obedient to their own husbands, that the word of God be not blasphemed.”
Kay @114
I was reading again about Phoebe, and was astonished when I found that the KJV rendering of “servant” in Romans 16:1 comes from the exact same word Paul uses when he calls Timothy and Titus “servants” or “deacons” of their respective churches.
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