Holly

Craig @120
Point 3 is more what I’m talking about. 1 Tim 2:11-15 is dealing with a woman teaching her husband, which is different than dealing with a woman teaching men in general. Just because a woman is found to be teaching false doctrine to her husband in 1 Tim 2 doesn’t automatically infer that she would also have been teaching a general assembly in 1 Tim 1. With the cultural barriers, a woman teaching a general assembly just seems unlikely if you are using these passages of Scripture alone.
It is only by comparing other Scriptures that I am starting to get the idea that women were also teachers/deacons etc just as Gengwell commented @124

Gengwell @124
I agree that the teaching/learning of the woman in 1 Tim was in private and not Corporate Worship.

Kay @122
I’ve been “rebellious” for a couple of years now teaching Bible studies to young adults, both men and women, in my own home. I’ve not been sure what exactly the consequences of this “rebellion” might be. hmmm These young couples/singles (in their teens and 20’s) are not church goers but are willing to sit in my living room and learn of the gospel.. so I teach them. Some have gotten saved through my doing this. I’ve not understood why God would have me NOT share with those willing to listen, and I’ve always referred to Aquila and Priscilla teaching Apollos as an example of women teaching men at some points in Scripture. The other “hard” scriptures that have seemed to indicate my wrong doing, I’ve had in the “I don’t understand, but I’m sure God does” basket.
I agree that Titus doesn’t say women can ONLY teach women, but it seems equally wrong for Egals to read into the passage that women CAN teach men from these verses.
The passage does seem to be pointing out the “roles” of men and women, and Titus 2:5 says for wives to be “obedient to their own husbands”.
The word “obedient”
1) to arrange under, to subordinate
2) to subject, put in subjection
3) to subject one’s self, obey
4) to submit to one’s control
5) to yield to one’s admonition or advice
6) to obey, be subject
This verse seems to be indicating a hierarchical point of view?
Why is it do you think, that there is no same directive for the men to be “obedient to their own wives” if all things are “fair and equal” with husbands having no “authority” within a marriage relationship?