Craig

Egals and Comps both accuse each other of assuming too much or reading too much into passages.
I was wondering about the idea that the husband is like Adam in not doing anything about his wife’s deception. It sounds reasonable and may be true but I was wondering where it is necessary from the text of 1 Tim 2:11-15? Is it a possible extra similarity between the two couples or do you see it clearly come out of the text? It seems to read OK to me without it (at least it does at this particular moment 🙂
Sorry for dumping 3 questions all at once. They all seemed a bit related.