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gengwall

gengwall

2010-07-29

First, to dispense with some #222 incidentals:

I think I failed to congratulate you on thinking outside the box……

hahaha. Buttering me up before you drop the hammer.

You made a mistake here. There isn’t an “indefinite” singular. It is just singular. There is no indefinite in the Greek. And the singular can be definite without the definite article. So there isn’t such a change from singular to definite singular since both can (and I believe does) mean the same thing.

LOL – toMAtoe; tomatoe. the point is there is a shift. If you want to call it from “singular” to “definite”, that’s fine with me.

I am not sure where you are getting this from other then this is typically what comp teachers say. Is the “correction” that Paul is giving a correction for behavior that is inhibiting the spread of the gospel, or is the correction the proper way to show their godliness through their inner character and not through expensive dresses and jewelry?

The answer to your either/or is “Yes”. The two things are intertwined.

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