gengwall

No problem. It is tough coming in at the end of one of these long posts. Sorry I sounded defensive – it was unintentional.

Anything I can help you with regarding the current discussion? It is primarily about Paul not using the definite article “the” in verse 11 (translated “a woman” in most bibles but actually just “woman” in the Greek), but then introducing it in verse 14 (“but the woman, being deceived, has fallen into disobedience” – Hebrew Names Version).

Cheryl and I agree about 99% of this passage but are quibbling over why the definite article was not introduced at the beginning. Neither of our positions alters our egal stance.