Mark

TL,

Thanks for the link. Just a few thoughts…
1. Im not Wayne Grudem, nor can i speak on his behalf.
2. The links were not well researched at all, it was just a rebuttle about a very small thing Grudem has said. It was all about dis-proving Grudem, and had very little ‘research’ to show any other use of the word.
3. I’m more intereseted in discussions these issues with each other, rather than just giving links to other people’s opinions.
4. I’m very concerned how egalitarians use Cyril of Alexandria to prove ‘source’, ‘beginning’ as the meaning of Kephale by his exegesis of these passages- Gordon Fee does the same. Admittedly Cyril was one of the ‘good’ guys in the early church in terms of doctrine. However he is mid 5th century, which is quite a ditance away from when Paul wrote the text, so it is hardly a concrete use of linking the greek literature. Secondly, as far as i know, that means for 450years the church understood kephale to not mean ‘source’-this is significant. Thirdly, Alexandria was well known for it’s metaphorical/allegorical interpretation of scripture. Augustine is a prime example in his interpretation of the good samaritan- far from what is considered orthodox. All in all, Cyril is far from concrete proof to show this to be true, as Suzanne may have been implying.

Im unsure whether you are disputing the 3 uses of kephale in greek literature that i listed or agreeing? The three i listed were as far as i know, the excepted known uses by well known scholars on both sides of the debate. I was trying to represent the overall use of the word. The context of how it is used in the NT is another question. If you wish to dispute or add im more than happy to discuss that.