gengwall
2012-01-13
Sorry to dredge up old posts but I’m having a wee struggle with one thing. (BTW – just re-read this series and it truly is wonderful and astounding. I sooooo “get” this passage now and feel very confident arguing against head=boss with friends and family)
Related is the more recent dialog you had with nn regarding Christ and the Word and whether or not the human Christ is the pre-incarnate Word (http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2011/06/14/repost-authority-vs-submission-a-biblical-view-of-ephesians-522/)
I get how the man is the origin of the woman – Adam’s rib and all that. And I get how God is the origin of Christ. But I’m not sure how to interpret “Christ is the origin of all men”. Is it your position that this is addressing creation? That doesn’t seem to follow the Christ-Word-God argument because, I think, the Word was what created, not the human Christ? So is this maybe instead talking about the creation of the Church? I don’t know. It is a little fuzzy for me. Any thoughts?
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