pinklight

The Scripture says to the first woman, “your desire shall be to you husband, and he shall rul over you”, Genesis.

Tom, here we are again. What does this mean?
Eve’s nature was still intact as perfect when God said this to her. There is no evidence that her nature had changed into a rebellious one, as had Adam’s, which there is evidence for. Her desire then for her husband resting with the evidence remains within her “good nature” and Adam’s desire to rule his wife within his spoiled nature. In spite of her desire for her husband, he shall rule her.
Ofcourse to you Eve’s desire probably has something to do evil or rebellion, and if that is the case, you are required to provide the evidence of this rebellious nature of hers. As far as spoiled Adam ruling Eve, it’s sensless to try to make anything good out of it. He was a rebel end of story, and you no doubt follow in his foot steps since you believe that wives are to be ruled. God simply as day is light and night dark, didn’t tell Adam to rule his wife, not in Gen 1, 2 or 3. He informed Eve of her new circumstance. So, to your Genesis statement – so what?