Cheryl Schatz

Mark,

So Cheryl in your opinion, verse 3 is referring to one husband/wife- Adam and Eve? Where then does Paul’s argument seperate from this first husband/wife to those in Corinth. What specific grammar allows for such a change?

Paul says “the man” in verse 3 as opposed to “every man” in verse 4. Since Paul is also talking about origins in verse 8 it should be obvious that the origin of the woman “the man” is Adam.

I would also like you to answer Kay’s question because I am also very interested in your response. Is it a sin for a woman to preach or teach in a “formal” church? Sin is a serious matter and God wants women to know what is sin so that we can avoid it. I want to know if you believe God has identified preaching and teaching in a “formal” church to be sin?