Kay

“However in relation to the evidence i know about kephale and the way it was used metaphorically in this grammatical construction, and the way i read the rest of the bible i feel that what i have offered here is reasonable.”
Mark,
The way I read the rest of the Bible, it never once states that a man or a husband has been given ‘authority’ over a woman or a wife. Not once -for it to be seen in the Bible it must be previously assumed by the reader.

Nothing, Jesus said is used by comps/hierarchialist to prove their view – because nothing He said bolsters it. Not once did He command His female followers never to teach or preach to a man. In fact, His words say just the opposite of what comps espouse.
“Not so among you”
“just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life”
“If I then, your Lord and Teacher have washed your feet, you also ought to wash one another’s feet”
“All authority (exousia) has been given to Me”
“All authority”
“All”
“All” as in not a jot of it has been given to anyone else.