pinklight

“The question then must be raised, was Jesus subordinate before his incarnation and after.”

Good question! Hi Mark!

“Besides, it was not the Father that descended to the earth, but he who came forth from the Father; nor was it the Father that died and rose again, but he whom the Father had sent. This distinction did not take its beginning at the incarnation: for it is clear that the only begotten Son previously existed in the bosom of the Father (John 1:18). For who will dare to affirm that the Son entered his Father’s bosom for the first time, when he came down from heaven to assume human nature? Therefore, he was previously in the bosom of the Father, and had his glory with the Father. Christ intimates the distinction between the Holy Spirit and the Father, when he says that the Spirit proceedeth from the Father, and between the Holy Spirit and himself, when he speaks of him as another as he does when he declares that he will send another Comforter; and in many other passages besides (John 14:6; 15:26; 14:16).”

This has what to do with the subordination of the Son to the Father??? What, where??

“So what was Jesus position pre-incarnation…was it a subordinated position? What is his position now considering He is STILL in human form? Maybe his humanity is now void…the subordinated part according to your interpretation doesn’t really apply in His resurrected body.”

You’re assuming his FORM since he died the king of the Jews but reserected the king of Isreal. WHY ASSUME anything and create doctrine from it?? In the beginning he was the word who WAS GOD (Godhead, NOT the Father).