Craig

I am not sure if this is the best place to ask this question.
In 1 Cor 11:3, I think I can understand the comments about man being the origin of the woman and relating this to v8.
I think I understand how “God” (Godhead) is the origin of “Christ” in the incarnation.
I am not sure that I understand how “Christ” is the origin of every man. If Paul is thinking of the creation of man, why did he use the term “Christ” rather than “Word” for example. It was emphasised in some comments how “Christ” refers to Jesus after his birth, but he didn’t create man then.
Thanks.