gengwall

It is interesting how some older versions of the bible do a better job than newer translations. I have heard it argued that there was less of a threat from women prior to the 19th century so translators didn’t have to bolster male authority in their translations. Could be. Of course, in some ways the older translations are just as bad as new. Still, I wanted to see how authenteo was treated in less common, often pre-KJV versions. Here are a couple examples which, while maybe not getting it exactly right, at least offer an interesting change from the vanilla “have/usurp/exercise authority” we get in most bibles used today.

Wycliffe (1382) (adjusted to current spellings) “neither to have lordship on the man” (“husband” in the John Purvey Bible-1395),
Mace New Testament (1729) “nor to dictate to her husband”