gengwall

Oh, ok now I understand which reasoning you were finding flaws in. It is true that 1 Cor 7 addresses an aspect of marriage, not the marriage itself. But Cheryl’s main point in the opening still has weight – this is the ONLY time that exousiadzoe is used in a discussion of marriage, whether it be between man and wife OR between Christ and His bride the church. Let me ask you – do you find it presumptuous that some find the existence of one way exousiadzoe in marriage when such an arrangement is never taught in all of scripture?